A)
Which of the following was HaeckelÕs
definition of Ecology?
A) the study of all of the complex
interrelations referred by Darwn as the struggle for existence.
B) the holistic examination of the synergysms
between plants, animals, and the environment
C) analysis of the distribution and abundance of
organisms
D) the use of hemp, eating of yogurt and
granola, and recycling
E) none of the above
B)
Which of the following is a focus of
modern ecological science?
22. The
distribution and abundance of organisms
23. The
flow of energy and matter through the biosphere
24. Physiological
adaptation of organisms to abiotic factors
25. The
structure and function of nature
26. All
of the above
3. A scientific approach to the study of nature
involves:
A) developing models or hypotheses that can be
tested by collecting data.
B) requires the use of statistical analysis to
distinguish what happens by chance from reaction/coaction
C) developing answerable questions about our
knowledge of natureÕs functions
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
4.
Corliolis:
A) Is a mafia family in New Jersey.
B) Is the rotational effect on paths taking by
objects in motion that are not firmly attached to the earth
C) Effects air Currents but not water currents
D) Effects water currents but not air currents
E) None of these
5.
Which of the following are responsible for seasonal change in the
tropics:
A) Hadley Cells
B) Thermal circulation of air
C) The ground postion of the sun
D) All of these
E) None of these
6. Heat energy manifests itself as:
A) Kinetic energy of atoms and molecules.
B) Brownian motion
C) The rate of chemical reactions.
D) The rate of crickets chirping
E) all of the above
7. The figure to the right is an example of a:
A) Coriolis
B) Adiabiatic processes
C) Albedo
D) Inversion
E) None of these
8.
A rain shadow is formed by:
A) the dense accumulation of moisture blocking
out the sun and limiting photosynthesis
B) decreasing in absolute humidity with
increasing elevation, and decreasing relative humidity with
decreasing elevation
C) intertropical convergences that creat wet and
dry seasons.
D) the rain that continues to fall after the
storm cloud has already passed
E) none of these
9.
Urban areas affect weather patterns
A) True
B) False
10.
Sunlight penetration in forests:
A) has no effect on growth and distribution of
plants unless there is water stress
B) only effects plants on the forest floor in
blue wavelengths.
C) may determine distribution of plants based on
their shade adaptations
D) only determines the distribution of plants
based on whether they are C3 or C4 plants.
E) none of the above.
11.
PAR stands for:
A) Partial Actual Result
B) Particulate Assimilative Rate
C) Precipitated Areal Rainfall
D) Projected ÒAÓ horizon Resistivity
E) none of these
12.
Which wavelenght of light penetrates farthest:
A) red
B) yellow
C) green
D) blue
E) white
13.
A leaf area index measures:
A) the size of individual leaves relative to the
distance from the ground
B) the amount of GPP per leaf area
C) the amount of NPP per leaf area
D) the amount of leaf area per ground area
E) none of these
14.
Which of the following is not true of the "A" horizon of a
soil profile:
A) there is a gradient of organic material from
litters to humus
B) minerals and clays are leeched out of it to
the "B" horizon
C) the depth and amount of organic material can
vary considerably between tropical and temperate forest soils.
D) the pH is highly dependent on the type of
plants growing in the soil.
E) theyÕre all true.
15.
POM stands for:
A) Prisoner Of Matriculation
B) Particulate Organic Matter
C) Pressure Outlet Mechanism
D) Partial Osmolarity Margin
E) none of these
16. Availability of cation nutrients in soil:
A) depends on how many worms are present.
B) depends on soil osmolarity
C) depends on cation exchange capacity
D) depends on the amount of hygroscopic water
present
E) all of the above
17. The field capacity of a soil for water:
A) is broken down into gravitational water,
capillary water, and hygroscopic water
B) is broken down into capillary water and hygroscopic
water
C) includes hygroscopic water only
D) is only measured in tilled farmland
E) depends on the rainfall
18.
What property of clays make them important for soil fertility:
A) they are negatively charged
B) they can be molded into cup shapes to
increase water retention
C) they have no hygroscopic water
D) they resist leaching in the ÒAÓ horizon
E) none of these
19. Saturated soils and sediments are
characterized by:
A) gradients of oxygen and reduced chemicals
B) saturated amounts of oxygen in the pore
water.
C) lack of living organisms
D) uniformity in their vertical profiles
E) none of the above
20.
For any given abiotic factor, organisms may show:
A) an optimum range
B) a tolerated range
C) a minimum threshold
D) a maximum threshold
E) all of these
21.
Phenotypic plasticity is:
A) the ability to make funny faces
B) the ability of a flounder to change colors to
match a background
C) the range of gene expression in phenotypes
D) the range of environmental factors that
induce phenotypes
E) none of these
22. Which of the following definitions related
to oxygen availability is Incorrect:
A) oxic = plenty of oxygen
B) hypoxic = saturated oxygen
C) anoxic = complete lack of oxygen
D) aerobic = plenty of oxygen
E) anaerobic = complete lack of oxygen
20. C3 and C4 photosynthetic
pathways:
A) do not affect the distribution of plants in
the environment.
B) differ in the efficiency of CO2
capture.
C) do not discriminate between isotopes of
carbon
D) are used to make C3 and C4 explosives
E) none of the above.
21.
Label the features of this irradiance curve:
22. A shade adapted plant
A) will have a lower saturation point and a
lower compensation point
B) will have a higher saturation point and a
higher compensation point
C) will have a higher saturation point and a
lower compensation point
D) will have a lower saturation point and a
higher compensation point
E) none of these
22. GPP-NPP
= :
A)
Photrespiration
B)
plant respiration
C)
photoinhibition
D)
C4 saturation
E) none of these
23. Degree-Days:
A) are usually in May around graduation time
B) are the hottest days of summer when
photosynthesis becomes inhibited
C) are the coldest days of winter that determine
species distributions
D) are the cummulative temperature and duration
of temperature exposure
E) none of these
24. Which
is more cold tolerant:
A) Broadleaf Deciduous
B) Broadleaf Evergreen
25. Water
limitation for plants results in
A) CO2 limitations
B) nutrient limitations
C) loss of structural support
D) all of these
E) none of the above.
26. For
aquatic organisms, osmolarity of tissue fluids relative to the environment is
an important factor requiring adaptations. Which of the following definitions
of osmolarity conditions is NOT
true:
A) isotonic = body has same osmolarity as
environment
B) hypotonic = body has lower osmolarity than
environment
C) hypotonic = body has higher osmolarity than
environment
27. Juncus roemarianus
deals with excess salt by:
A)
packing into needle sharp tips
B)
secreting it out onto the leaf surface
C)
combining it with malate to inactivate it
D)
all of these
E)
none of these
28. Adaptations
to xeric conditions include:
A)
Shallow root systems
B)
Air breathing root tissue
C)
Hollow stems
D)
Use of malate to hold onto water
E)
None of these
29. Label
the features of this uptake kinetics curve
32. What does a km indicate?
A)
the concentration of a susbstance for
half maximal uptake velocity
B)
the concentrations of a substance an
organism is adapted to in nature
C)
both
D)
neither
33
In which of the following situations
would a C4 plant have an advantage over a C3 plant?
A)
low water availability
B)
low CO2 concentrations
C)
high temperature
D)
all of these
E)
none of these
34.
Chemoautotrophy
A)
uses chemical energy to make organic
matter
B)
supports hydrothermal vent communities
C)
is found in anaerobic sediment gradients
D)
all of these
E)
none of these
35. Osmotrophs:
A)
are best avoided at parties
B)
rely on DOM as an energy source
C)
are not affected by surface to volume
ratios
D)
all of these
E)
none of these
36. The
use of a basic calorimeter in the late 1700Õs demonstrated that:
A)
guinea pigs are claustrophobic
B)
live organisms ÒburnÓ organic matter just
like fire (oxidative combustion)
C)
live organisms have adapted to convert
energy differently than abiotic oxidation
D)
none of these
37. Why
would a herbivore eat dirt?
A)
they develop a sodium deficiency
B)
they need the sand to grind their plant
food into small particles for microorganisms to break it down
C)
they are just disgusting creatures
D)
their gut symbionts need the cation
exchange capacity
E)
None of these
38.
What is a ÒJubileeÓ
A) a nice restaurant on Pensacola Beach
B) a desert made with cherries
C) a response to hypoxia
D) a response to oligotrophic conditions
E) none of these
1. Heat energy manifests itself as:
A) Kinetic
energy of atoms and molecules.
B) Brownian
motion
C) The rate of
chemical reactions.
D) The rate of
crickets chirping
E) all of the
above
2. The efficiency of biological energy
transformations can be determined:
A) since it has
been experimentally proven that biological systems behave the laws of
thermodynamics
B) since it has
been experimentally proven that no spontaneous energy transformations are 100%
efficient
C) since it has
been experimentally proven that respiration and the combustion of organic
materials have
the
same inputs and outputs
D) all of the
above
E) none of the
above
3. The metabolic rate of living organisms:
A) changes with
stress.
B) changes with
body size
C) decreases for
starved organisms.
D) all of the
above.
E) none of the
above
4. Poikilotherms:
A) use the
metric system to measure kilocalories.
B) have a
minimum body size/shape requirement to retain heat from respiration.
C) use
behavioral adaptations to sustain a heat balance
D) have a SMR
much higher than for equivalent sized homeothermic organisms
E) none of the
above.
5. Which is NOT an important means of heat gain for organisms in nature:
A) solar
radiation
B) infrared and
heat from surroundings
C) metabolism
D) nuclear
fission
E) behavior
6-10. Fill in the boxes in this energy flow
diagram for hetertrophic organisms.
11. Photoperiod:
A) is the
intensity of PAR
B) has no effect
on animals, but dramatic effects on plants
C) only involves
ultraviolet portions of the spectrum that humans canÕt visualize
D) all of the
above
E) none of the
above.
12. Rhythmic behavior patterns are:
A) induced by
lunar/tidal cycles
B) circadian
rhythms
C) defined by
their persistence when shielded from environmental periodicity.
D) all of these
E) none of these
13. Population
cycles in nature have intrigued man for thousands of years, although the causes
of these cycles remain elusive.
Which of the following have been considered as possible hypotheses:
A) Predator-prey interactions
B) Time lags from K overshoots
C) Periodism in the environment
D) all of the above.
E) none of the
above.
14. Which would result in an even
distribution of individuals:
A. intraspecific competition
B. uniform habitats
C. Clonal growth
D. All of these
E. None of these
15. Which spatial distribution pattern is
seen for herding or schooling organisms:
A. Random
B. Clumped
C. Even
D. All three dependent on the scale of
observation
E. None of the above
16. Why are most individuals in nature
clumped:
A. Spatial distribution of abiotic factors
B. Dispersal and growth
C. Social interactions
D. All of these
E. None of these
17. How can organization of individuals in
a cooperative manner overcome negative effects of density?
A. Predator protection
B. Improved foraging
C. Modification of the environment
D. All of these
E. None, the negative effects of crowding
cannot be negated.
18. It what ways can groups increase
survival from predation:
A. Geometric effects
B. Creating confusion
C. Mutual vigilence
D. All of these
E. None of these
19. In the example of insect eating birds
(woodpeckers) foraging alone or in groups:
A. Single individuals ate more because
there was less competition
B. Single birds ate less because they were
constantly looking for mates instead of foraging
C. Group birds were more susceptible to
predation because they had a false sense of security
D. Group birds spent more time eating and
less time looking around
E. None of these.
20. In the division of labor in a honey bee
hive, what is the role of the male?
A. Eat, try to have sex
B. Construction of new honey comb
C. Guard the hive entrance from intruders
D. Scout out new sources of nectar and
pollen
E. all of the above
21. What determines whether a honey bee egg
becomes a queen or a worker bee:
A. Genetics
B. Diet
C. Whether or not it is fertilized
(diploid)
D. all of these
E. None of these
22. Which of the following is a criterion
used to define Eusociality:
A. Division of labor, especially sterile
and reproductive castes
B. Offspring remain with and cooperate
with parents
C. Cooperative rearing of young
D. All of these
E. None of these
23. Passive dispersal usually results in
a(n) of propagules with distance.
27. Exponential increase
28. Logrythmic increase
29. Exponential decrease
30. Logrythmic decrease
31. None of these
24. Fish ear bones can be used for:
E)
establishing
the physiological basis of schooling behavior
F)
establishing
the age structure of populations
G)
estimating
the depth at which the fish spends most of its time
H)
making
really cool marine biology-dude necklaces
I)
none
of these, fiah don't have ear bones.
25. Monogamous mating systems involve:
A. A persistent pair bond
B. One male with several females
C. One female with several males
D. No structured reproductive effort
E. None of these
26. Polygynous mating systems involve:
A. A persistent pair bond
B. One male with several females
C. One female with several males
D. No structured reproductive effort
E. None of these
27. Sex ratios of offspring are determined
by:
A. Temperature
B. Female behavior
C. Genetics
D. All of these
E. None of these
28. 17 year Cicadas are examples of which
type of breeding strategy
F)
Semelparous
G)
Iteroparous
H)
Pupalparous
I)
Euparous
J)
Altoparous
29. What is thought to control maximum
clutch size for birds with altricial young:
E)
snakes
F)
# of
available nest sites
G)
survivorship
of both parents and young
H)
all
of these
I)
none
of these
30. Which of the following are
characterisitic of "r" strategists?
34
late
maturity
35
small
#s of offspring
36
interference
competition
37
all
of these
38
none
of these
31. Which of the following is information
you would not get from a cohort or horizontal life table:
A) Survivorship
of an age group or cohort (lx)
B) Mortality of
a cohort (dx)
C) Mortality
rate for a cohort (qx)
D) Life
Expectancy of a cohort (ex)
E) Energy
requirements for reproduction (er)
32. A good example of a discrepancy between
mean natural longevity and potential of physiological longevity would be:
A) humans
B) fish
C) birds
D) bacteria
E) annual plants
33. A verticle, time specific or static
(all different names for the same thing) life table is created:
F)
by
following the survivorship of an age class from birth to death
G)
by
using age structure data to fill in the life table and estimate lx.
H)
by
removing a set of organisms from the "cost of a free existence" and
determining their survivorship
I)
by
using the life stages of invertebrates instead of time based ages for
"x"
J)
none
of these.
34. Survivorship curves, or plots of lx
vs. age for most organisms in nature show:
A) high juvenile
mortality, higher adult mortality, and low post reproductive mortality.
B) high juvenile
mortality, low adult mortality, high post reproductive mortality
C) low juvenile
mortality, low adult mortality, high post reproductive mortality
D) high juvenile
mortality, consistent but lower mortality through adult and post-reproductive
ages.
E) none of the
above.
35. For a population in exponential growth
modeled by the differential equation: rN = dN
dt
dN/dt
=
A) the
instantaneous growth rate
B) the
derivative of the exponent r on the base e
C) the intrinsic
rate of natural increase
D) all of these
E) none of these
36. "r" is related to µ by the
expression:
A) µ = r et
B) µ = lnNtx
- lnNto
C) by taking the
proportional vector to the lx term of a life table generated using
the formula: 1/lx - dx µet
D) µmax = r.
E) none of the
above
37. A mathematical model of population
growth called the Logistic equation:
A) avoids the
problem of the exponential model describing infinite population growth.
B) incorporates
constraints on population size.
C) incorporates
the lags necessary to describe the logistics of reproduction
D) all of the
above
E) none of the
above
38. In the logistic equation term (K-N) :
K
A) K is a
special breakfast cereal that provides maximum µ
B) K is the
carrying capacity defined as the number of non-productive individuals Nnp
capable of being carried by the number of productive individuals, Np in
a population.
C) K is the
carrying capacity defined as the number of individuals supportable on available
resources.
D) K has its
maximum inhibition on population growth when N is small.
E) C & D
only
39. What is the significance of R0
= 1.
A) it show a
unitary biotic potential
B) it reflects
the unified theory of all matter, time and energy
C) it indicates
that females in a population are replacing themselves in their lifetime
D) it indicates
that females in a population are replacing themselves each breeding season
E) none of the
above.
40. Populations regulated by density
dependent factors:
A) are
populations that tend to be saturated near K and respond to fluctuations in
size by adjusting to K
B) tend to be
organisms with fast growth rates
C) tend to
organisms with exploitive competition strategies
D) All of the
above
E) none of the
above
38. A typical density independent population
growth response can be modeled using:
F)
the
exponential growth equation
G)
the
logisitic growth equation
H)
the
logistic growth equation only if time lags are incorporated
I)
all
of these
J)
none
of these
42. In the concept of ideal free
distribution, density regulation of populations may affect the distribution of
organisms within habitats of varying quality by:
A) improving the
quality of poorer habitat by social interactions
B) improving the
perceived quality of mid range habitats by destroying worse habitat
C) reducing the
quality of more suitable habitat with increasing density
D) reducing the
quality of less suitable habitat by increasing No/Nt.
E) none of the
above
43. Which of the following characteristics
define K-selected organisms:
A) dependence on
using up pools of resources rather than the rate of resource availability
B) exploitive
competition
C) adaptations
to surviving in unstable habitats
D) all of the
above
E) none of the
above
44. Evolution
A) can only
occur over generations of an population, not through individuals (except maybe
bacteria)
B) can be
observed in other organisms within the time scale of human life
C) involves
variation in genotypes and selective pressures acting on that variability
D) involves
change in the proportion of a population carrying a specific gene
E) all of the
above
45. Traits resulting in lowered fitness for
the bearer:
A) may result in
a smaller proportion of the population carrying the gene in the next population
B) may persist
if linked to another trait that improves survival of the individual
C) may become
positively selected with change in environmental conditions
D) may persist
or increase if the trait improves group fitness of local breeding populations
E) all of the
above
E)
A
quasi-neutral point mutation:
F)
involves
a single base pair change in the DNA molecule
G)
results
in a phenotypic change subject to selective pressures
H)
can
be either deleterious or beneficial depending on the circumstances
I)
all
of these
J)
none
of these
47. The Hardy-Weinburg equilibrium equation
for determining gene frequencies in stable populations:
A) is useless to
ecologists because it does not fit the real world
B) can be used
to calculate phenotypic plasticity
C) can be used
to as a basis to quantify deviations from equilibrium conditions (selective
pressure).
D) is named for
Laurel Hardy and Moe Weinburg
E) none of the
above
48. Punctuated Equilibrium theory suggests
that:
A) the word
ÒequilibriumÓ should always be surrounded by punctuation marks
B) evolution is
a slow gradual process acting only during periods of equilibrium where
populations are near K.
C) evolution
mostly occurs in a series of abrupt events stimulated by drastic changes in the
environment.
D) apes became
humans only by puncturing the balloon of equilibrium in which they were
trapped.
E) none of the
above
49. Selective pressures may act to:
A) stabilize the
most common form of a variable trait.
B) eliminate the
most common form by favoring the extremes, ultimately resulting in separate
traits.
C) eliminate
only one extreme of the traitÕs variability resulting in change in the trait
towards the opposite form.
D) all of these
50.
In the example of evolution of insecticide resistance:
A.
Change in gene frequencies for alleles conferring chemical resistance
was documented
B.
The magnitude of change in gene frequency was higher where there was a
larger portion of the population not experiencing the selective pressure
C.
Texas insects are too independent to be affected by insecticides
D.
All of these
E. None of these
51. In defining
kin selection in terms of genetic fitness to explanation apparent altruistic
behavior, a famous ecologist once said:
A) he wouldnÕt help any of his relatives if they were the
last people on earth
B) he would lay down his life for his siblings but not his
parents.
C) he would lay down his life for three siblings or nine
cousins.
D) he would lay down his life for three female siblings or
nine cousins.
E) none of these.
52.
Genetic
drift:
A.
refers
to the formation of founder populations by drifting on rafts.
B.
Is
the random loss of alleles due to segration and recombination of chromosomes
C.
Requires
large population sizes to be seen
D.
Increases
genetic variability an thus increases fitness
E.
None
of these
53.
The
concept of a ÒMinimum Viable PopulationÓ SHOULD incorporate:
A. the concept
of an effective population
F)
mathematical
requirements for sustaining genetic variability
G)
the
concept of Òmutational meltdownÓ
H)
stochastic
processes
I)
all
of the above
1. The competitive exclusion principle
states:
A)
no two organisms can share the same competitive ability
B)
no two organisms can occupy the same physical space
C)
no two organisms can occupy the same niche
D)
Paramecia cannot coexist in test tubes
E)
none of these
2. Which of the following describes a
Òrealized nicheÓ
A)
The sum total of all resources an organism would potentially use
B)
The sum total of all resources an organism actually uses
C)
The sum total of the self-actualizing awareness from introspection
D) The realized change in morphology in response to niche shift.
E)
none of these
3. For the organisms interacting
competitively:
C) both gain
D) both lose
E) one gains, one loses
F) none of these
4. Exploitive competition:
22. Is based on resource
utilization and growth
23. Tends to be an ÒKÓ
selected adaptation
24. Uses aggression to
exclude another species
25. All of these
26. None of these
K) Which of the following
equations does the Lotka-Volterra competition model use as a base?
J) Ecotonal
K) Dispersal
L) Attenuation
M) Logistic
N) Amensalistic
6.
In the equation dN1
= K1 -
N1 - µN2 , µN2
represents:
dt K1
F) a negative feedback from
the competitive ability of species two
G) reflects competitive
ability (µ) scaled by numbers (N2) of a second
species
H) provides negative
feedback from interspecific competition only
I) all of these
J) none of these
7. Which of the following situations would
result in a stable co-existence between two species as the outcome of the
Lotka-Volterra models?
K) Intraspecific
competition > Interspecific competition
L) Intraspecific
competition < Interspecific competition
M) Intraspecific competition =
Interspecific competition
N) any of these
O) none of these,
intraspecific competition is not involved
39. In the competitive
exclusion example of the Golden Naval Scale Sucker:
J) a species of parasitoid
wasp was competitively excluded with the introduction of a second species
K) a species of parasitoid
wasp was excluded only over parts of its range due to abiotic factors
L) both
M) neither
40. Niche partitioning from
competitive interactions:
J) is reflected in
morphological characters
K) changes with changes in
resource availability
L) can be manifest as
character displacement
M) all of these
N) none of these
41. In the Lotka-Volterra
predation model prey equation dP = rP – aÕCP
:
dt
K) aÕ is the number of
predators
L) aÕ is the number of prey
M) aÕ is the attack
frequency
N) aÕ is the growth
efficiency of the predators
O) none of these
42. In the Lotka-Volterra
predation model predator equation dC
= faÕCP – qC :
dt
K) f is the number of
predators
L) f is the number of prey
M) f is the attack
frequency
N) f is the growth
efficiency of the predators
O) none of these
43. The combination of
predator and prey equations results in:
54. predators eating their
prey to extinction
55. predators starving to
extinction after consuming all their prey
56. oscillating population
numbers of predators and prey
57. all of these
58. none of these
44. Which factors did Gause
add to his experiments with Paramecium
and Didinium to try to establish stable cycles:
F. refuge from predators
G. immigration of predators
H. intraspecific
competition in the prey population
I. all of these
J. none of these
45. A type I functional
response reflects:
A) prey density
independent, linear or proportional predator response
B) prey density dependent
predator response
C) prey switching
D) all of these
E) none of these
15.
- 19. Draw and label the features
of a type II functional response curve.
Indicate what controls the shape of the curve at high and low prey
density?
20. A Òsearch imageÓ:
A) is prey pattern, color,
or motion recognition by predators
B) can be negative or
positive
C) affects the shape of
type III functional response curves
D) all of these
E) none of these
21. Aggregative response of predators
reflects:
A) search behavior and
residence time in patches of variable prey densities
B) an upper limit to
predator density caused by intraspecific competition
C) a short term response to
spatially variable prey density
D) all of these
E) none of these
22. Growth responses to
increasing prey density:
A) are not relevant in
nature
B) are only important for
ÒKÓ adapted organisms
C) reflect the energy
limitation on growth rate as seen in values of ÒmÓ
D) all of these
E) none of these
23. The basic premise of
optimal foraging is:
A) organisms have an
inherent foraging capacity ÒfÓ that represents a theoretical maximum
B) organisms that maximize
efficiency will have greater fitness
C) M&Ms will induce
foraging behavior
D) Organisms are foraging
optimally only in a type I response
E) None of these
24. Determining optimal prey
involves:
A) size
B) quality
C) density
D) all of these
E) none of these
25. The decision to leave a
patch of prey involves:
A) education
B) Type I response
C) Remaining until the
point of decreasing returns independent of patch quality
D) All of these
E) None of these
26. Central Place foraging:
A) refers the tendency of
predators to remain in the center of a foraging patch
B) was developed watching
squirrels in Central Park, NYC
C) requires a greater
return of energy with increasing distance traveled
D) has not been
demonstrated in nature
E) none of these
27. Why do we see deviations
from optimal foraging theories in nature?
A) organisms in nature will
often minimize risk rather
than maximize efficiency
B) foraging strategies are
limited genetically to a speciesÕ evolutionary lineage
C) organisms develop habits
and will not explore new possibilities for efficient energy return
D) all of these
E) none of these
28. How do plants respond to
herbivores?
A) increased productivity
(to a point)
B) smaller replacement
leaves
C) thicker replacement
leaves
D) induction of chemical
defenses
N) all of the above
29. Chemical defense in
plants include:
A) Compounds that affect
digestive enzymes
B) Compounds that mimic
hormones
C) Compounds that are toxic
or aversive
D) All of these
E) None of these
30. Which of the following
is not a benefit of being able to tolerate the chemical defense of a plant?
A) assimilation of the
defense
B) chemical cue for finding
food resource
C) no competition for food
D) maximal efficiency of
growth on a targeted resource
E) all of the above
31. When a non-toxic
organism mimics a toxic or dangerous species for defense, it is called:
A) cheating
B) Batesian
C) Mullerian
D) Aggressive
E) Crypsis
32. When toxic organisms
share warning coloration to reinforce negative search images, it is called:
A) cheating
B) Batesian
C) Mullerian
D) Aggressive
E) Crypsis
33. Which of the following
could be a Symbiosis?
A) mutualistic interactions
(both organisms benefit)
B) commensal interactions
(one benefits, one unaffected)
C) parasitism (one
benefits, one harmed)
D) all of these
E) none of these
34. Facultative symbionts:
A) can live independently
as well as symbiotically
B) cannot live
independently
C) are faculty at
universities
D) none of these
35. Mycorrhizae
A) are ecoto, endo,
facultative or obligate
B) suppress root hairs in
some plants
C) are very efficient at
extracting phosphates from soils
D) all of these
E) none of these
36. Benefits to autotrophs
in symbiotic relationship with a heterotroph include:
A) O2
B) Sugars
C) Removal of waste ammonia
D) All of these
E) None of these
37. Plants
that are pollinated by mutualism have:
A) slippery, dry pollen
B) copious amounts of
pollen
C) inconspicuous flowers
D) all of these
E) none of these
38. Pollination by deceit
involves:
A) providing nectar and
pollen as food source rewards
B) stealing nectar without
transferring pollen
C) sneaking around at night
to avoid predators while visiting flowers
D) all of these
E) none of these
39. The mutualism called
Zoochory involves:
A) eating fruits and seeds
B) eating fruit only
C) eating in Zoos
D) group singing (a chorus)
to indicate the presence of a predator
E) none of these
40. A cleaner symbiosis
involves:
A) trading housework for
food and shelter
B) a highly evolved
symbiosis that starts as a ÒdirtyÓ symbiosis
C) organisms that eat
parasites
D) organisms that remove
dead animal carcasses
41. ÒTragedy of the CommonsÓ
refers to:
A) the plight of poor
ÒcommonÓ folk in post-revolution France and their lack of access to natural resources
B) when mimicry fails due
to having mimics become too common and the resultant break down of negative
search images
C) unregulated use of
resources
D) how regulations and
management practices are implemented
E) none of these
42. Improved technology:
A) decreases the effort required
to reach MSY
B) increases the effort
required to reach MSY
C) does not affect MSY
D) none of these
43. The amount of
harvestable biomass from a population of a particular species depends, in part,
on:
A) r
B) market demand
C) ¶
D) technology
E) none of these
44. A Òwindow limitÓ
A) attempts to shield sea
turtle hatchlings from light pollution by restricting the area of windows per
house facing the sea on barrier islands
B) preserves brood stock
C) allows harvest of
organisms at large (post-reproductive) sizes and preserves intermediate sizes
with the greatest fitness and reproductive potential
D) requires paperwork from
anyone harvesting the targeted population.
E) None of these
45. Natural resource
management:
A) follows strict
scientific guidelines
B) is subject to emotion
and self-interest
C) neither of these apply
1. Organisms that dominate, define, or create
different communities are called:
K) pillars of the community
species
L) competitive excluders
M) keystone species
N) niche inductors
O) none of the above
2. ÒTrophic CascadesÓ and the ÒParadox of
EnrichmentÓ:
O) are top down and bottom up
controls (respectively) on community structure
P) are bottom up and top down
controls (respectively) on community structure
Q) flux rates of energy in
waterfalls are the reverse of what is found in pools
R) top predators feeding on
several trophic levels resulting in a ÒparadoxÓ of abundance
S) none of these
3.
Disturbance:
G) always reduces diversity
H) always increases diversity
I) increases diversity at
moderate levels
J) all of the above
K) none of the above
4.
Species-area curves show that:
O) with increases in area, the
number of species increases exponentially
P) with increases in area, the
number of species decreases logarithmically.
Q) with increases in area, the
number of species decreases at a decreasing rate
R) all of the above
S) none of the above
5.
For most organisms, dispersal results in:
L) a random distribution of
propagules with distance
M) a logarithmic decline of
propagules with distance
N) an even dispersion of
propagules over distance
O) none of these
P) all of these
6.
Island Biogeography theory suggests that:
46. islands are dependent on
their geographic location to determine productivity
47. an equilibrium number of
species will exist in patches of habitat dependent on immigration and
extinction rates
48. an islandÕs species composition
is dependent on competitive interactions and productivity
49. all of these
50. none of these
7.
Diversity involves:
51. Equal niche opportunities
52. A balance between species
richness and poorness
53. Species richness and evenness
54. Species richness over defined
geographic areas
55. None of these
8.
Taxonomic Distinctness involves:
56. The ability of speciesÕ
characters to distinguish themselves from others
57. The training involved and
recognition of expertise to be a taxonomist
q
The concept that species are not always clearly separatable, and the
problems this causes when trying to determine diversity.
58. The differences between
species within a community based on how closely related they are to each other
59. None of these
9. Some species such as some bog plants,
are associated with temporary habitats or successional stages, and are found
nowhere else. How can we best plan
for long-term survival of these organisms?
60. by isolating their DNA and
freezing it for future resuscitation
61. by preserving their current
habitat
q by
preserving areas that encompass successional stages of the habitat type
q by
targeting the organism and ignoring the process creating its habitat
q none
of the above
10. Edges or ecotones, the transition from
one community type to another, are high in species diversity, and productivity.
Why are edge effects a problem in conservation?
q edges
reduce the total area that will support area sensitive species adapted to the
interior community.
q edges increase the foraging of predators
and the range of parasites not normally associated with the interior community
q small patches may be all
"edge" containing no suitable habitat for interior adapted species
q all of the above
q none of the above.
11. If
preservation of corridors and small patches of habitat do not contain enough area
to support some species, why should they be set aside?
q they may maintain migration routes and
transient havens for migrants and emigrants
q some plants will survive even in tiny
patches
q even sink areas where the net survival
of a species is below zero help maintain genetic diversity
q all of the above
q none of the above
12. Why
isnÕt sewage sludge used more widely as compost?
q sludge may be contaminated with metals
and synthetic chemicals.
q the attitude represented by:
"YouÕre not putting that stuff
on my vegetables!"
q both of these
q neither of these
13.
Individual land/homeowners:
q really canÕt have any impact on the
total addition of fertilizers, pesticides and herbicides into the environment.
q have no responsibility for stewardship
of our natural resources, its the governmentÕs job
q are exempt from worrying about pesticide
use if they live within the city limits
q all of these
q none of these
14. Bioaccumulation:
q is a process opposite to the dynamics of
nitrogen mineralization and excretion
q results in increased toxicant loads if
they are retained when assimilated biomass is respired.
q is the reason why top predators are at
higher risk for many toxicants than lower trophic levels
q all of these
q none of these
15-17. Diagram energy and matter flow for an
autotrophic organism
18-20. Diagram energy flow for an osmotrophic
organism
20-22. Diagram energy flow for a heterotrophic
phagotroph
23. What
is ÒMicrobial EnrichmentÓ
q the
attachment and growth of microorganisms on detrital particles
q the
ability of bacteria to precipitate gold from seawater
q the
release of dissolved nutrients from detritus by microorganisms breaking it down
q all
of these
q none
of these
24. What does the concept of a Òshifting
mosaicÓ have to do with community ecology?
q The
species within communities can be viewed as a moveable pattern of mosaic chips
constantly revealing new structures
q The
distribution of abiotic factors provides a non-equilibrium mosaic to which
organisms must constant adapt, changing community structure
q It
is a new way of looking at species diversity
q It
is a pattern of successional processes and endpoints created by cyclic growth,
death and renewal, especially for forests
q None
of these
25. What would you predict to be the effect
of a toxic pollutant on growth efficiency?
q the
toxicant would increase growth efficiency by creating super mutant blobs that
will engulf the earth
q energy
expended in repair from toxicant damage would decrease growth efficiency
q energy
expended in repair from toxicant damage would decrease maintenance energy
requirements
q all
of these
q none
of these
26.
Globally, most energy flow is through:
q homeotherms
q poikilotherms
q elephants
q feedlot
beef
q none
of these
27. Unlike
energy flow through ecosystems, the elemental constituents of biomass:
q are
recycled
q are
only used once, then dissipated to space
q are
unaffected by biologically mediated reactions
q All
of these
q none
of these
28. The
terms Pioneer and Climax species have been used by botanists to describe:
q r-selected
species (pioneer) and K selected species (climax) based on growth dynamics and
competitive ability.
q successional
events marked by rebel trees refusing to grow up and be part of the community.
q the
growth stages of long lived trees in newly opened territories.
q All
of these
q None
of these
29.
GPP - NPP =
q
net photosynthesis
q
plant respiration
q
plant growth efficiency
q
herbivore growth efficiency
q
none of these
30.
A P/R ratio is indicative of which of the following:
62. whether or not a community is
at steady state
63. whether or not a community is
detritus based
64. whether a community is
undergoing succession or is at climax
65. all of these
66. none of these
31.
A P/B ratio provides an indication of:
q
Plant/Bacidiomycetes interactions
q
energy capture per unit biomass
q
production as a fraction of biomass respired
q
all of these
q
none of these
32.
Which of the following is listed in order of increasing assimilation
efficiency:
q
detritivores, herbivores, carnivores
q
carnivores, herbivores, detritivores
q
herbivores, carnivores, detritivores
q
all three are similar
q
none of the above
33. Why
is phosphate naturally so limiting?
F)
It is only available from rotting salmon
G)
It is very insoluble
H)
It is only found in sediments
I)
It is toxic and so has to handled very carefully
34. Which of the following is thought to contribute
to the control of the oxygen concentration in the atmosphere?
J)
Wildfires
K)
Fish kills
L)
The diffusion rate of oxygen into anaerobic spaces
M)
Industrial releases of ozone
N)
None of these
35.
Which of the following factors contribute to determining the half-life
of detritus in the 0 horizon?
O)
Species composition of plant community
P)
Temperature
Q)
Generation time of the plant community
R)
All of these
S)
None of these
36.
Mineralization and Immobilization refer to:
T)
The slow accretion of cyrstals leading to pertification of organic
matter
U)
The change in the net flux of nutrients with decompositon of detritus
V)
The ability of fungi to dissolve rock and re- crystalize it for
predator protection
W)
All of these
X)
None of these
37. Would you expect bioaccumulation to be greater
through poikilotherms or homeotherms?
Y)
yes
Z)
no
1. In
comparing agricultural practices between 1945 and 1999, which of the following
energy inputs has increased significantly:
q Pesticide and herbicide use
q Fossil fuel use
q Manual labor
q Electricity
q all of these have increased
greatly
2. Organisms that dominate, define, or create
different communities are called:
P) pillars of the community
species
Q) competitive excluders
R) keystone species
S) niche inductors
T) none of the above
3.
ÒTrophic CascadesÓ
o conceptualizes the flow of
energy down through the trophic levels to heat at the bottom
o involves prey switching and
predators following a ÒcascadeÓ of preferred prey
o involves alternating biomass
abundance of adjacent trophic levels
o flux rates of energy in
waterfalls are the reverse of what is found in pools
o none of these
4. The ÒParadox of EnrichmentÓ:
o is a top down effect
controls on community structure
o is a bottom up effect on
community structure
o is top predators feeding on
several trophic levels resulting in a ÒparadoxÓ of abundance
o refers to the degradation
that occurs at high levels of enrichment
o none of these
5.
Species area relationships:
o suggest that single larger
areas are preferred for preservation
o have shown that several
smaller areas equal to the size of a single large area will contain less
diversity.
o do not address the types of
species being examined, only total species number
o all of the above
o none of the above
6.
Taxonomic Distinctness and Genetic Diversity measures both involve:
o The ability of speciesÕ
characters to distinguish themselves from others
o The training involved and
recognition of expertise to be a taxonomist
o The concept that species are
not always clearly separable, and the problems this causes when trying to
determine diversity.
o The differences between
communities based on how closely the species within each are related to each
other
o None of these
7.
Edges or ecotones, the transition from one community type to another,
are high in diversity, abundance and productivity. Why are edge effects a problem in conservation?
o edges reduce the total area
that will support area sensitive species adapted to the interior community.
o edges increase the foraging
of predators and the range of parasites not normally associated with the
interior community
o small patches may be all
ÒedgeÓ containing no suitable habitat for interior adapted species
o all of the above
o none of the above.
8. Globally, most energy flow is through:
o
homeotherms
o
poikilotherms
o
elephants
o
feedlot beef
o
none of these
9. Unlike energy flow through ecosystems, the elemental
constituents of biomass:
o are recycled
o are only used once, then
dissipated to space
o are unaffected by
biologically mediated reactions
o All of these
o none of these
10. Microbial enrichment refers to:
o
the
attachment and growth of microorganisms on detrital particles
o the ability of bacteria to
precipitate gold from seawater
o the release of dissolved nutrients
from POM by microorganisms breaking it down
o all of these
o none of these
11. How can a P/R ratio (carbon sink/carbon
source) indicate disturbance in natural communities?
o pulses of organic matter can
shift the ratio into a heterotrophic succession
o early successional stages
resulting from ÒrepairÓ of forest gaps are areas of higher production than
respiration
o stable climax communities at
equilibrium for biomass and energy dynamics tend to have a P/R ratio of one
o all of these
o none of these
12. What does the concept of a Òshifting
mosaicÓ have to do with community ecology?
q The
species within communities can be viewed as a moveable pattern of mosaic chips
constantly revealing new structures along abiotic gradients
q The
distribution of abiotic factors provides a non-equilibrium mosaic to which
organisms must constant adapt, changing community structure
q It
is a new way of looking at species diversity
q It
is a pattern of successional processes and endpoints created by cyclic growth,
death and renewal, especially for forests
q None
of these
13. The terms Pioneer
and Climax species have been used by botanists to describe:
q r-selected
species (pioneer) and K selected species (climax) based on growth dynamics and
competitive ability.
q succession
events marked by rebel trees refusing to grow up and be part of the community.
q the
growth stages of long lived trees in newly opened territories.
q All
of these
q None
of these
14.
GPP - NPP =
q
net photosynthesis
q
plant respiration
q
plant growth efficiency
q
herbivore growth efficiency
q
none of these
15.
A P/R ratio is indicative of which of the following:
q
whether or not a community is at steady state
q
whether or not a community is detritus based
q
whether a community is undergoing succession or is at climax
q
all of these
q
none of these
16.
A P/B ratio provides an indication of:
o Plant/Bacidiomycetes
interactions
o energy capture per unit
biomass
o production as a fraction of
biomass respired
o all of these
o none of these
17. The difference
between regional natural NPP and human modified landscape production
(agriculture, lawns,asphalt, concrete, buildings, etc.) is called:
o planetary
degradation ratio (PDR)
o global warming
coefficient (GWC)
o coopted and
missing production
o energy deficit
o none of these
18.
Which of the following is listed in order of increasing assimilation
efficiency:
o detritivores, herbivores,
carnivores
o carnivores, herbivores,
detritivores
o herbivores, carnivores,
detritivores
o all three are similar
o none of the above
19.
Which of the following factors contribute to determining the half-life
of detritus in the 0 horizon?
q Ecotone gradients
q Temperature
q mycorrhizae
q All of these
q None of these
20. Mineralization and Immobilization refer
to:
AA)
The slow accretion of crystals leading to petrification of organic
matter
BB)The change in the net flux
of nutrients as detritus decomposes
CC)The ability of fungi to
dissolve rock and re- crystalize it for predator protection
DD)
All of these
EE)None of these
21. What
are the three dominant greenhouse gases
o CO2, Methane,
Water vapor
o CO2, N2,
Water vapor
o CO2, NOx,
SOx,
o CO2, CFCs, POPs
o none of these
22. Energy that
contributes to NPP but is not directly captured as chemical potential energy in
biomass is called:
o gravy
o energy quotient
o energy
stimulator
o energy subsidy
o none of these
23. In terms of sources of nutrient
pollution, which has a greater impact?
q Point sources
q Non-point sources
24. ÒTMDLÓ stands for:
q Total
Maximum Daily Load
q Total
Malignant Degradation Level
q The
Maximum Desired Level
q The
Maximum Detection Limit
q none
of these
25.
Three broad categories that were presented as types of environmental
impacts from manÕs activities are:
q overloads with
biodegradables, alteration of abiotic conditions, addition of novel synthetic
organics
q rape, pillage, and plunder
q genetic engineering, species
introductions, co-opted production
q homogenization, oxidation,
fertilization
q none of these
26.
What does ÒAssimilative CapacityÓ mean?
q Stomach volume
q Extraction efficiency
q Ability to utilize or absorb
a substance
q The demand flux is higher
than the input flux.
q None of these
27.
What is the origin of the N coming down with the rainfall?
q Oz
q Offshore oil drilling
q Onshore combustion of fossil
fuels
q Outgassing from Termites and
cows
q None of these
28. Why
is rainfall a problem for some sewage treatment plants?
q whenever it rains people
stay inside and use the facilitates more.
q some older cities have
combined storm water and sewer systems
q the Clean Water Act (1972)
states that no effluent can be discharged during rain events
q all of these
q none of these
29. Why
isnÕt sewage sludge used more widely as compost?
q sludge may be contaminated
with metals and synthetic chemicals.
q the attitude represented by:
ÒYouÕre not putting that stuff on my vegetables!Ó
q both of these
q neither of these
30.
What are the potential uses of sewage treatment plant effluent?
q Irrigation
q Flushing toilettes
q Taking showers
q Washing cars
q None of these
31. The
goal of secondary sewage treatment is:
q physical filtration
q biological treatment
q nutrient removal
q sludge disposal
q sterilization
32.
Approximately what fraction of municipal solid waste going to landfills
is biodegradable or recyclable?
q 10%
q 30%
q 50
q >70%
33. Why
donÕt organic materials degrade in landfills?
q The odor sterilizes
everything
q They are anerobic
q Landfill leechate preserves
it
q Too much oxygen
q Too much methane
34. Why
is mercury contamination such a problem in Florida?
q We are really sloppy here
q There used to be a lot of
thermometer manufacturers here
q It rains a lot
q ThereÕs lots of sulfate
reducing bacteria
q None of these
35. Individual land/homeowners:
q really canÕt have any impact
on the total addition of fertilizers and lawn chemcials into the environment.
q have no responsibility for
stewardship of our natural resources, its the governmentÕs job
q are exempt from worrying
about pesticide use if they live within the city limits
q all of these
q none of these
36.
Bioaccumulation:
q is the collection of bits of
trash by birds to make nests
q results in increased
toxicant loads if they are retained when assimilated biomass is respired.
q is the reason why top
predators are at lower risk for many toxicants than lower trophic levels
q all of these
q none of these
37.
What would you predict to be the effect of a toxic pollutant on growth
efficiency?
q the toxicant would increase
growth efficiency by creating super mutant blobs that will engulf the earth
q energy expended in repair
from toxicant damage would decrease growth efficiency
q energy expended in repair
from toxicant damage would decrease maintenance energy requirements
q all of these
q none of these
38. A tertiary stage of sewage treatment
involves:
q
Physical screening
q
Grit removal
q
Biological oxidation
q
Sludge recycling
q
None of these
41. If
bacteria like to eat oil, why are oil spills a problem?
q If it exceeds the
assimilative capacity of the system, it creates a smothering overload
q When the labile stuff is
gone, the refractory stuff is toxic
q If it can find anaerobic
space, it canÕt be oxidized to CO2
q all
q None
42. PCB
stands for:
q probabilistic concentration
of bioimpairment
q polyploidic cancer baseline
q polycyclic carbonated
bromide
q polycyclic chlorinated
biphenyl
q none of these
43 PAHs:
q are hydrophobic
q are toxic
q come from coal tar
q come from crude oil
q all of these
q none of these
44.
What is PAN?
q Photochemical smog
q A potent photosynthesis
inhibitor
q Peroxacetyl Nitrate
q Formed from hydrocarbon
aerosols
q All
q None
45.
Combustion of fossils fuels affects which of the following:
q Air quality
q Nitrogen loading in
waterways
q Mercury loading of waterways
q Percent base saturation of
soils
q All
q None
46. In order, which
fuel provides the most energy return
o ETOH from sugar
o Gasoline
o ETOH from corn
47. The greenhouse
effect
o is an
environmental cause with no real substance
o was invented by
Al Gore
o keeps the planet
cooler so we can live on it
o keeps the planet
warmer so we can live on it
48. Atmospheric
carbon dioxide has increased approximately how much in the past 150 years
o no change
o it has decreased
o 10 percent
o 20 percent
o 30 percent